Election Spending Redux
Apparently people believe that the Tories illegally spent more than they should have
So here’s the question I have. The Tories are notorious for centrally planned election campaigns (ironic, isn’t it?) - and really, if you’ve been in any organization (especially political parties) where branding is treated as an afterthought, you would understand why it’s important to have most things from the top. Maybe not what policy is best for your area, but definitely in look-and-feel…
Ok, now really, the question I have. What constitutes an advertisement used to “directly to promote or oppose a candidate during an election period?” Does the advertisement have to be solely the candidate’s? But if the party is trying to do central-based branding, and thus wants the ad to look a certain way, doesn’t it save everyone money to re-use parts of a national ad for a local candidate (fiscally conservative, at least) - so how much of that ad needs to be ‘candidate’ - 5 seconds? 10 seconds? half of a 30-second ad? all of it?
I think you see where I’m going with this. Someone has to either draw a line, or we have to accept the idea that one could put the candidate’s name on it and effectively it now directly promotes the candidate.
Remember, though, public opinion is something very different. Just because something is legal doesn’t make it right in the public’s eyes. The Volpe incident is perfect proof of that. Yes, he *could* and *did* accept $5,000+ from two children… technically… but that didn’t make it right. And he paid for it [figuratively]. The Tories may be in the same type of situation… but to be perfectly honest - I suspect what they did will be seen as legal. It will remain to be seen if the public sees it as right.
30.Apr.08
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